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I'm struggling with this question. BK argues quantum superpositions are collapsed by consciousness/ observation. But if everything just *is* consciousness why are there superpositions?? He may suggest it's metaconsciousness that does it but there are objects i realise i was seeing without realising i wad seeing them at the time. Would love to know his answer as trying to write on this.
Re: How can perceived objects lose definiteness in quantum terms if consciousness is 'ubiquitous/all'?
You may be forgetting what Consciousness does - feels, dreams, thinks, wills. The superpositions would be of all possible ideas or feelings that might be dreamed of. When they appear to us as objects, they are representations of those ideas or feelings via our dashboard of perception (phenomenal). But we do not see them in the full glory of what they intrinsically are (noumenal).