What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Adur Alkain
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

Post by Adur Alkain »

Simon Adams wrote: Wed Jun 02, 2021 10:21 am It seems to me there is a fundamental question around an element of nature as an observer of itself, versus conscious/living observers. I keep seeing mixed versions of this, including in Adur’s comments in his recent QM post, and indeed from Bernardo.

Take his recent ‘Objections to Idealism’, around 47 mins in, on the question of cosmological history. Most of what he says is a clear refutation of a blatant misunderstanding of idealism. However he adds an additional point about there being no representation, indeed no “physical” reality at all, until there were ‘living’ observers;

This seems to me to be unnecessary and also potentially problematic. First off, what do we mean by physical properties? If two meteors hit each other in space, there is an impact. We know that this is just fields repelling each other, but equally this is something that would normally fall under the description of a physical event. The material properties play a critical role in determining the outcome of the collision. Is the suggestion that this event would be in any way different if it happened in a part of the universe that is further than 4 billion light years away from any planet that has life? If so, in what way would it be different?

If the suggestion is that nature in it’s raw form, the thing in itself if you like, always behaves in the same way, and by “physical” we purely mean how nature represents itself to the senses of biological organisms, then this problem goes away, but then many of the aspects of quantum mechanics used to support idealism by Bernardo and others become meaningless. What is ‘observation’ in this scenario? More than this, I think we have enough evidence from QM experiments to show that conscious observation is not necessary to cause “collapse” of the wave function. Adur tries to get around this by stating that there is an entanglement between the investigator and the instruments when they setup the experiment (even if they then place it in a ‘black box’, and the detectors self destruct/erase). However this seems to be invoking a kind of magic, as if the photons are interrogating the investigator’s mind to find out where they put the detectors. Why should the entanglement be any different when the investigator includes a detector when setting up the experiment, versus when they don’t? This just doesn’t seem feasible or likely to me.

If instead we say that nature is composed of substantial, mental, forms, and that when these interact in a meaningful way they represent to each other, these problems seem to me to go away. All interactions produce physical properties as part of the interaction. However you can’t then have a need for ‘living’ biological observation in order to have representation, as Bernardo, Adur and many others suggest as necessary.

Am I missing something?
Excellent question, Simon! And thanks for reading my essay! :)

To begin with, my version of idealism is very different from Bernardo's analytical idealism. Bernardo's view bypasses all Western science (I'm not an expert in analytical idealism, please those of you who are correct me if I'm wrong), by saying that the physical universe, with all its physical laws, is the extrinsic appearance of a mysterious "universal conscious inner life". From this perspective, QM doesn't add anything meaningful or new: quantum laws are just the extrinsic appearance of the activity of that universal consciousness, exactly like classical laws.

Bernardo endorses Carlo Rovelli's relational interpretation of QM, which denies the existence of an objective physical universe. He argues that analytical idealism provides an explanation for the consistency of the observations made by different observers. (In the relational interpretation, there are as many physical universes as observers, and there is no reason to assume that those different universes should be mutually consistent.)

I don't find Bernardo's view satisfying (I don't find Rovelli's relational interpretation convincing either). That's why I'm trying to develop my own version of idealism. I sometimes call it "nonlocal idealism", because it takes the fundamental nonlocality discovered by QM (proven by Bell's theorem) seriously.

Bernardo's analytical idealism is, as far as I can tell, a local theory. If I perceive a mountain, and that mountain is the extrinsic appearance of M@L's inner life, then M@L's inner life must be local. Because only from a particular location can that mountain be perceived. If I'm in Switzerland and you in Scotland, we won't see the same mountain. But if we are standing side by side at the same location in space, we can be pretty sure we will see the same mountain. Why does this consistent locality happen in our perceptions? I'm not aware of any explanation given by Bernardo, unless it is that spacetime is the extrinsic appearance of M@L's nonlocal inner life. But why should this hypothetical inner life appear consistently as local?

Another objection I have to Bernardo's analytic idealism is the consistency and regularity in the behaviour of the physical world. Let's take for example Newton's classical laws of motion. If planets and stars and billiard balls are the extrinsic appearance of M@L's inner life, why is this inner life so regular, mechanical and predictable? Our own inner life is in no way as predictable and mechanical as that.

To answer your question about two meteors colliding far away from any planet with life... I don't believe in the objective existence of meteors, or of planets, unless they are being measured by living organisms (and therefore, observed by Nature). Many physical events occuring light years away from us (like planetary collisions or whatever) can be measured by scientists. Therefore, they exist objectively. But anything that can't be measured doesn't exist in the physical sense. The physical universe is the measured universe.

In my own version of idealism, there is a crucial difference between QM and classical physics. In my view, it is impossible to justify the classical laws of physics from an idealistic perspective. If billiard balls are fundamentally mental, why should they obey mechanical laws? On the other hand, QM shows precisely that the classical laws of physics are only approximations: they are not real laws. The laws of classical physics are an illusion created by the consistency and regularity of our measurements (perceptions).

The great scientific revolution of QM opens up a new era for idealism: classical physics was a great obstacle for idealism. QM has removed that obstacle. For materialists, classical mechanics seems reasonable and QM seems weird. For idealists, it's the opposite: classical mechanics seems weird (impossible to explain, in fact), but QM is perfectly reasonable.

I tried to explain that in my essay: QM removes all notion of cause and effect. We can no longer think of the physical universe as made up of objects colliding with each other. All there is is probabilities of measurement, and entanglement. Entanglement explains by itself all the consistencies we see in the physical universe. No other laws are needed.

My "observational interpretation" does invoke a kind of magic, but the magic is not in the photons: photons don't actually exist, unless they are observed by Nature. And Nature can only observe photons if the probabilites of finding those photons in certain states are entangled with the probabilities of finding the sensory system of some living organism (in the case of an experiment carried out by human physicists, the sensory system of those physicists) in corresponding states. I know this isn't easy to grasp. It has taken me about two years to get a clear mental picture of what I mean. But I think it works.

The idea here is that Nature never never never gives us an experimental result outside the predicted probabilities of measurement. Nature has "freedom to choose" between different possible outcomes (maybe that choice is completely random, maybe it follows some mysterious "will"), but that freedom is limited by the probabilities described by the wave function. That means, from an idealistic perspective (which in my view doesn't allow mechanical explanations), that Nature somehow "knows" the probabilites of measurement at all locations in spacetime. And Nature "knows" this nonlocally, at every instant.

From this I conclude that Nature "knows" at every point in spacetime the probabilities of finding the sensory systems of all living organisms in any particular states. That necessarily means that, when it is possible for a living organism to measure a particular property of a quantum system, for example the location of a photon (in other words, when there is a correlation between the probabilities of finding the photon at certain locations and the probabilities of finding the sensory system of that living organism in certain corresponding states), Nature instantly observes that photon at a particular location, thus collapsing the wave function. Why? Because the moment the location of that photon gets entangled with the sensory system of a living organism, that photon becomes part of the observed world, the actual world.

Unobserved photons (or any microscopic particles) exist only in the invisible, virtual realm of probabilities. Nature is constanly and directly observing the sensory systems of all living organisms. Only via these sensory systems is Nature able to observe, indirectly, microscopic entities like photons.

The conscious mind of the experimenter plays no role in this. It is the configuration of the experimenter's physical body (sensory system) what determines the result of the experiment (by determining the entanglement). As for why introducing a mesurement device, like a detector, in an experimental setup would change the entanglement... I'm talking of the entanglement between a quantum system (a mildly radioactive substance, say, or a laser gun shooting single photons) and the sensory system of the human experimenter. Human beings can't perceive directly radioactive subatomic particles, or the location of single photons. Therefore, without the detector there is no entanglement between the quantum system and the sensory system of the experimenter. Introducing the detector means introducing a chain of entanglement (between the quantum system and the detector, and between the detector and the sensory system of the experimenter).

I hope this helps. If it doesn't, I would be happy to clarify further what I'm trying to say.

I don't understand what you mean by "nature is composed of substantial, mental, forms, and (...) when these interact in a meaningful way they represent to each other." Would you like to explain that for me? :)
Physicalists hold two fundamental beliefs:

1. The essence of Nature is Mathematics.
2. Consciousness is a product of the human brain.

But the two contraries are true:

1. The essence of Nature is Consciousness.
2. Mathematics is a product of the human brain.
Jim Cross
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

Post by Jim Cross »

Relational Quantum Mechanics
Carlo Rovelli
By using the word “observer” I do not make any reference to conscious, animate, or computing, or in any other manner special, system. I use the word “observer” in the sense in which it is conventionally used in Galilean relativity
when we say that an object has a velocity “with respect to a certain observer”.
The observer can be any physical object having a definite state of motion. For
instance, I say that my hand moves at a velocity v with respect to the lamp
on my table. Velocity is a relational notion (in Galilean as well as in special
relativistic physics), and thus it is always (explicitly or implicitly) referred to
something; it is traditional to denote this something as the observer, but it is
important in the following discussion to keep in mind that the observer can be
a table lamp
.
https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/d ... 1&type=pdf
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Soul_of_Shu
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 12:20 pmAny physicist who thinks there is a mind at large isn't basing that belief on physics but on metaphysics or maybe religious belief. There is no scientific evidence of a mind at large.
Like the belief in some abstracted physical substrate that exists independent of consciousness? Out of curiosity, do you feel that there is scientific evidence for any ontological primitive, or must such an uncaused primal state always be a postulate?
Here out of instinct or grace we seek
soulmates in these galleries of hieroglyph and glass,
where mutual longings and sufferings of love
are laid bare in transfigured exhibition of our hearts,
we who crave deep secrets and mysteries,
as elusive as the avatars of our dreams.
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Czinczar
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

Post by Czinczar »

Simon Adams wrote: Wed Jun 02, 2021 10:21 am
Am I missing something?
Don't forget that according to BK or Donald Hoffman, space and time are a category of perception, a production of consciousness, and so is what we call physical matter inside the structure of space and time. All this is our perception. And so we can imagine a consciousness that doesn't perceive time as we perceive it, for which time maybe doesn't even exist.
Jim Cross
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

Post by Jim Cross »

Soul_of_Shu wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 1:13 pm
Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 12:20 pmAny physicist who thinks there is a mind at large isn't basing that belief on physics but on metaphysics or maybe religious belief. There is no scientific evidence of a mind at large.
Like the belief in some abstracted physical substrate that exists independent of consciousness? Out of curiosity, do you feel that there is scientific evidence for any ontological primitive, or must such an uncaused primal state always be a postulate?
There is no scientific evidence for any ontological primitive. It is unneeded, probably meaningless, but at least unknowable.

Where do you see a need for one? Does it affect your daily life? Does it have anything to do with what decisions you make?

The notion may provide some psychological comfort, maybe is needed by some like various other beliefs - religious, political, or other - and is a part of one's identity.
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Czinczar
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Adur Alkain wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 12:23 pm Another objection I have to Bernardo's analytic idealism is the consistency and regularity in the behaviour of the physical world. Let's take for example Newton's classical laws of motion. If planets and stars and billiard balls are the extrinsic appearance of M@L's inner life, why is this inner life so regular, mechanical and predictable? Our own inner life is in no way as predictable and mechanical as that.
I think Bk responded to that recently by saying that because MAL is not metacognitive and is intuitive, it is very predictable. It doesn't suddenly "change its mind" to do something else, it doesn't plan ahead either. It's like breathing which is happening every second of our life, which is regular and usually out of our metacognitive capacities, but the second we self-reflect on it, our breathing becomes irregular. We shouldn't think that our human consciousness is THE model of consciousness, we shouldn't anthropomorphize MAL.

Also, because space and time are a production of our consciousness, what we see as regularities and irregularities might not necessarily correspond to the same kind of regularities or irregularities in MAL. You are comparing your own inner mental state that you judge irregular to the extrinsic appearance of the mental state of MAL that you judge regular and stable.
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 1:30 pmThere is no scientific evidence for any ontological primitive. It is unneeded, probably meaningless, but at least unknowable.
Do you really think that there are physicists, whether atheist, religious, or agnostic, who have not seriously pondered what the ontological primitive might be—albeit many might not use that term—and that such ideas have no significant bearing on their lives whatsoever?
Here out of instinct or grace we seek
soulmates in these galleries of hieroglyph and glass,
where mutual longings and sufferings of love
are laid bare in transfigured exhibition of our hearts,
we who crave deep secrets and mysteries,
as elusive as the avatars of our dreams.
Jim Cross
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Joined: Thu Feb 04, 2021 12:36 pm

Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

Post by Jim Cross »

Soul_of_Shu wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 1:58 pm
Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 1:30 pmThere is no scientific evidence for any ontological primitive. It is unneeded, probably meaningless, but at least unknowable.
Do you really think that there are physicists, whether atheist, religious, or agnostic, who have not seriously pondered what the ontological primitive might be—albeit many might not use that term—and that such ideas have no significant bearing on their lives whatsoever?
No. There may be physicists who have pondered and most of them would be physicalists, but that pondering has nothing to do with science. There may be some perceived significance to their lives like there may be perceived significance to many other things, but especially with ontology, there is little of actual practical significance.
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 1:11 pm Relational Quantum Mechanics
Carlo Rovelli
By using the word “observer” I do not make any reference to conscious, animate, or computing, or in any other manner special, system. I use the word “observer” in the sense in which it is conventionally used in Galilean relativity
when we say that an object has a velocity “with respect to a certain observer”.
The observer can be any physical object having a definite state of motion. For
instance, I say that my hand moves at a velocity v with respect to the lamp
on my table. Velocity is a relational notion (in Galilean as well as in special
relativistic physics), and thus it is always (explicitly or implicitly) referred to
something; it is traditional to denote this something as the observer, but it is
important in the following discussion to keep in mind that the observer can be
a table lamp
.
https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/d ... 1&type=pdf
What is a "table lamp"? Is it a collection of atoms, electrons, protons, quarks, etc.? If so, then what are those comprised of? We should quickly see, even through such a basic thought experiment, that the physicalist has no idea what the "observer" actually is in essence and can never formulate such an idea by reducing "unconscious" stuff to more "unconscious" stuff. At best, they can say the "observer" is some unknown property that we cannot ever specify through conscious experience, and we are simply assuming for no reason that this property is external to consciousness.
"A secret law contrives,
To give time symmetry:
There is, within our lives,
An exact mystery."
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Soul_of_Shu
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Re: What constitutes “observation” (/“measurement”)

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Jim Cross wrote: Thu Jun 03, 2021 2:12 pmNo. There may be physicists who have pondered and most of them would be physicalists, but that pondering has nothing to do with science. There may be some perceived significance to their lives like there may be perceived significance to many other things, but especially with ontology, there is little of actual practical significance.
Thanks for sharing that belief ;)
Here out of instinct or grace we seek
soulmates in these galleries of hieroglyph and glass,
where mutual longings and sufferings of love
are laid bare in transfigured exhibition of our hearts,
we who crave deep secrets and mysteries,
as elusive as the avatars of our dreams.
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